Can anyone tell me whether the usage of such articles can be found in the original Hebrew or Greek writing of the Scriptures?
Yes, I would like to know the scholarly answer to this one too. At the book study this week, the answer was read verbatim from the footnote:
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rechap.6p.27UnlockingaSacredSecret****In the original Hebrew at Isaiah 44:6, there is no definite article with the words "first" and "last," whereas in Jesus’ description of himself in the original Greek at Revelation 1:17, the definite article is found. So, grammatically, Revelation 1:17 indicates a title, whereas Isaiah 44:6 describes Jehovah’s Godship.
Once the answer was given, one sister raised her hand and commented that she still didn't grasp the meaning and wanted a clearer explanation of this. (She is a first generation JW, as she left the Baptist faith as an adult). The book study conductor, who supposedly is qualified to teach, didn't expound on this at all. He just said that the footnote was a wonderful way to describe and reveal the true meaning of this scripture.
HUH?
Alligator Wisdom (aka Brother NOT Exerting Vigorously by WTS standards)